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2021 Dec security+ sy0-401 practice test:

Q181. A user has received an email from an external source which asks for details on the company’s new product line set for release in one month. The user has a detailed spec sheet but it is marked "Internal Proprietary Information". Which of the following should the user do NEXT? 

A. Contact their manager and request guidance on how to best move forward 

B. Contact the help desk and/or incident response team to determine next steps 

C. Provide the requestor with the email information since it will be released soon anyway 

D. Reply back to the requestor to gain their contact information and call them 

Answer:

Explanation: 

This is an incident that has to be responded to by the person who discovered it- in this case the user. An incident is any attempt to violate a security policy, a successful penetration, a compromise of a system, or any unauthorized access to information. It’s important that an incident response policy establish at least the following items: Outside agencies that should be contacted or notified in case of an incident Resources used to deal with an incident Procedures to gather and secure evidence List of information that should be collected about an incident Outside experts who can be used to address issues if needed Policies and guidelines regarding how to handle an incident 

Since the spec sheet has been marked Internal Proprietary Information the user should refer the incident to the incident response team. 


Q182. HOTSPOT 

For each of the given items, select the appropriate authentication category from the dropdown choices. 

Instructions: When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. 

Answer: 

Explanation: 

Something you are includes fingerprints, retina scans, or voice recognition. 

Something you have includes smart cards, token devices, or keys. 

Something you know includes a passwords, codes, PINs, combinations, or secret phrases. 

Somewhere you are includes a physical location s or logical addresses, such as domain name, an IP address, or a MAC address. 

Something you do includes your typing rhythm, a secret handshake, or a private knock. 

References: 

Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, p 285. 


Q183. Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic? 

A. Connect the WAP to a different switch. 

B. Create a voice VLAN. 

C. Create a DMZ. 

D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

It is a common and recommended practice to separate voice and data traffic by using VLANs. Separating voice and data traffic using VLANs provides a solid security boundary, preventing data applications from reaching the voice traffic. It also gives you a simpler method to deploy QoS, prioritizing the voice traffic over the data. 


Q184. The server administrator has noticed that most servers have a lot of free disk space and low memory utilization. Which of the following statements will be correct if the server administrator migrates to a virtual server environment? 

A. The administrator will need to deploy load balancing and clustering. 

B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment. 

C. The administrator will not be able to add a test virtual environment in the data center. 

D. Servers will encounter latency and lowered throughput issues. 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q185. Digital certificates can be used to ensure which of the following? (Select TWO). 

A. Availability 

B. Confidentiality 

C. Verification 

D. Authorization 

E. Non-repudiation 

Answer: B,E 

Explanation: 

Digital Signatures is used to validate the integrity of the message and the sender. Digital certificates refer to cryptography which is mainly concerned with Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication, Nonrepudiation and Access Control. Nonrepudiation prevents one party from denying actions they carried out. 


Down to date comptia security+ review guide exam sy0-401 pdf:

Q186. It has been discovered that students are using kiosk tablets intended for registration and scheduling to play games and utilize instant messaging. Which of the following could BEST eliminate this issue? 

A. Device encryption 

B. Application control 

C. Content filtering 

D. Screen-locks 

Answer:

Explanation: 


Q187. The helpdesk reports increased calls from clients reporting spikes in malware infections on their systems. Which of the following phases of incident response is MOST appropriate as a FIRST response? 

A. Recovery 

B. Follow-up 

C. Validation 

D. Identification 

E. Eradication 

F. Containment 

Answer:

Explanation: 

To be able to respond to the incident of malware infection you need to know what type of malware was used since there are many types of malware around. This makes identification critical in this case. 


Q188. Which of the following fire suppression systems is MOST likely used in a datacenter? 

A. FM-200 

B. Dry-pipe 

C. Wet-pipe 

D. Vacuum 

Answer:

Explanation: 

FM200 is a gas and the principle of a gas system is that it displaces the oxygen in the room, thereby removing this essential component of a fi re. in a data center is is the preferred choice of fire suppressant. 


Q189. Which of the following is the BEST reason to provide user awareness and training programs for organizational staff? 

A. To ensure proper use of social media 

B. To reduce organizational IT risk 

C. To detail business impact analyses 

D. To train staff on zero-days 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Ideally, a security awareness training program for the entire organization should cover the following areas: Importance of security Responsibilities of people in the organization Policies and procedures Usage policies Account and password-selection criteria Social engineering prevention 

You can accomplish this training either by using internal staff or by hiring outside trainers. This type of training will significantly reduce the organizational IT risk. 


Q190. Which of the following BEST describes the type of attack that is occurring? 

A. Smurf Attack 

B. Man in the middle 

C. Backdoor 

D. Replay 

E. Spear Phishing 

F. Xmas Attack 

G. Blue Jacking 

H. Ping of Death 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The exhibit shows that all the computers on the network are being ‘pinged’. This indicates that the ping request was sent to the network broadcast address. We can also see that all the replies were received by one (probably with a spoofed address) host on the network. This is typical of a smurf attack. 

A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees. Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network.