★ Pass on Your First TRY ★ 100% Money Back Guarantee ★ Realistic Practice Exam Questions
Free Instant Download NEW SY0-401 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE):
Available on:
https://www.certleader.com/SY0-401-dumps.html
It is impossible to pass CompTIA SY0-401 exam without any help in the short term. Come to Actualtests soon and find the most advanced, correct and guaranteed CompTIA SY0-401 practice questions. You will get a surprising result by our Regenerate CompTIA Security+ Certification practice guides.
2021 Nov comptia security+ get certified get ahead sy0-401 pdf:
Q241. A company provides secure wireless Internet access for visitors and vendors working onsite. Some of the vendors using older technology report that they are unable to access the wireless network after entering the correct network information. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?
A. The SSID broadcast is disabled.
B. The company is using the wrong antenna type.
C. The MAC filtering is disabled on the access point.
D. The company is not using strong enough encryption.
Answer: A
Explanation:
When the SSID is broadcast, any device with an automatic detect and connect feature is able to see the network and can initiate a connection with it. The fact that they cannot access the network means that they are unable to see it.
Q242. Matt, a security administrator, wants to ensure that the message he is sending does not get intercepted or modified in transit. This concern relates to which of the following concepts?
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Accounting
D. Confidentiality
Answer: B
Explanation:
Integrity means ensuring that data has not been altered. Hashing and message authentication codes are the most common methods to accomplish this. In addition, ensuring nonrepudiation via digital signatures supports integrity.
Q243. Which of the following devices is MOST likely being used when processing the following?
1 PERMIT IP ANY ANY EQ 80
2 DENY IP ANY ANY
A. Firewall
B. NIPS
C. Load balancer
D. URL filter
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q244. Input validation is an important security defense because it:
A. rejects bad or malformed data.
B. enables verbose error reporting.
C. protects mis-configured web servers.
D. prevents denial of service attacks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Input validation is a defensive technique intended to mitigate against possible user input attacks, such as buffer overflows and fuzzing. Input validation checks every user input submitted to the application before processing that input. The check could be a length, a character type, a language type, or a domain.
Q245. Ann has taken over as the new head of the IT department. One of her first assignments was to implement AAA in preparation for the company’s new telecommuting policy. When she takes inventory of the organizations existing network infrastructure, she makes note that it is a mix of several different vendors. Ann knows she needs a method of secure centralized access to the company’s network resources. Which of the following is the BEST service for Ann to implement?
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP
C. SAML
D. TACACS+
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) networking protocol offers centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who make use of a network service.
Renew free security plus practice exam sy0-401:
Q246. An administrator is assigned to monitor servers in a data center. A web server connected to the Internet suddenly experiences a large spike in CPU activity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Spyware
B. Trojan
C. Privilege escalation
D. DoS
Answer: D
Explanation:
A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a DoS attack from multiple computers whereas a DoS attack is from a single computer. In terms of the actual method of attack, DDoS and DoS attacks are the same. One common method of attack involves saturating the target machine with external communications requests, so much so that it cannot respond to legitimate traffic, or responds so slowly as to be rendered essentially unavailable. Such attacks usually lead to a server overload. A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Such an attack is often the result of multiple compromised systems (for example a botnet) flooding the targeted system with traffic. When a server is overloaded with connections, new connections can no longer be accepted. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track and shut down. These attacker advantages cause challenges for defense mechanisms. For example, merely purchasing more incoming bandwidth than the current volume of the attack might not help, because the attacker might be able to simply add more attack machines. This after all will end up completely crashing a website for periods of time. Malware can carry DDoS attack mechanisms; one of the better-known examples of this was MyDoom. Its DoS mechanism was triggered on a specific date and time. This type of DDoS involved hardcoding the target IP address prior to release of the malware and no further interaction was necessary to launch the attack.
Q247. How often, at a MINIMUM, should Sara, an administrator, review the accesses and rights of the users on her system?
A. Annually
B. Immediately after an employee is terminated
C. Every five years
D. Every time they patch the server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reviewing the accesses and rights of the users on a system at least annually is acceptable practice. More frequently would be desirable but too frequently would be a waste of administrative time.
Q248. Requiring technicians to report spyware infections is a step in which of the following?
A. Routine audits
B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Clean desk policy
Answer: C
Explanation:
Incident management refers to the steps followed when events occur (making sure controls are in place to prevent unauthorized access to, and changes of, all IT assets).
Q249. A company is concerned that a compromised certificate may result in a man-in-the-middle attack against backend financial servers. In order to minimize the amount of time a compromised certificate would be accepted by other servers, the company decides to add another validation step to SSL/TLS connections. Which of the following technologies provides the FASTEST revocation capability?
A. Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP)
B. Public Key Cryptography (PKI)
C. Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL)
D. Intermediate Certificate Authority (CA)
Answer: A
Explanation:
Q250. Users can authenticate to a company’s web applications using their credentials from a popular social media site. Which of the following poses the greatest risk with this integration?
A. Malicious users can exploit local corporate credentials with their social media credentials
B. Changes to passwords on the social media site can be delayed from replicating to the company
C. Data loss from the corporate servers can create legal liabilities with the social media site
D. Password breaches to the social media site affect the company application as well
Answer: D
Explanation:
Social networking and having you company’s application authentication ‘linked’ to users’ credential that they use on social media sites exposes your company’s application exponentially more than is necessary. You should strive to practice risk avoidance.