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2021 Jul security+ + practice tests sy0-401:
Q531. One of the most consistently reported software security vulnerabilities that leads to major exploits is:
A. Lack of malware detection.
B. Attack surface decrease.
C. Inadequate network hardening.
D. Poor input validation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D: With coding there are standards that should be observed. Of these standards the most fundamental is input validation. Attacks such as SQL injection depend on unfiltered input being sent through a web application. This makes for a software vulnerability that can be exploited. There are two primary ways to do input validation: client-side validation and server-side validation. Thus with poor input validation you increase your risk with regard to exposure to major software exploits.
Q532. Which of the following assessments would Pete, the security administrator, use to actively test that an application’s security controls are in place?
A. Code review
B. Penetration test
C. Protocol analyzer
D. Vulnerability scan
Answer: B
Explanation:
Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system, network or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Pen tests can be automated with software applications or they can be performed manually. Either way, the process includes gathering information about the target before the test (reconnaissance), identifying possible entry points, attempting to break in (either virtually or for real) and reporting back the findings. The main objective of penetration testing is to determine security weaknesses. A pen test can also be used to test an organization's security policy compliance, its employees' security awareness and the organization's ability to identify and respond to security incidents. Penetration tests are sometimes called white hat attacks because in a pen test, the good guys are attempting to break in.
Pen test strategies include:
Targeted testing Targeted testing is performed by the organization's IT team and the penetration testing team working together. It's sometimes referred to as a "lights-turned-on" approach because everyone can see the test being carried out.
External testing This type of pen test targets a company's externally visible servers or devices including domain name servers (DNS), e-mail servers, Web servers or firewalls. The objective is to find out if an outside attacker can get in and how far they can get in once they've gained access.
Internal testing This test mimics an inside attack behind the firewall by an authorized user with standard access privileges. This kind of test is useful for estimating how much damage a disgruntled employee could cause.
Blind testing A blind test strategy simulates the actions and procedures of a real attacker by severely limiting the information given to the person or team that's performing the test beforehand. Typically, they may only be given the name of the company. Because this type of test can require a considerable amount of time for reconnaissance, it can be expensive.
Double blind testing Double blind testing takes the blind test and carries it a step further. In this type of pen test, only one or two people within the organization might be aware a test is being conducted. Double-blind tests can be useful for testing an organization's security monitoring and incident identification as well as its response procedures.
Q533. Which of the following is a BEST practice when dealing with user accounts that will only need to be active for a limited time period?
A. When creating the account, set the account to not remember password history.
B. When creating the account, set an expiration date on the account.
C. When creating the account, set a password expiration date on the account.
D. When creating the account, set the account to have time of day restrictions.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disablement is a secure feature to employ on user accounts for temporary workers, interns, or consultants. It automatically disables a user account or causes the account to expire at a specific time and on a specific day.
Q534. In the initial stages of an incident response, Matt, the security administrator, was provided the hard drives in question from the incident manager. Which of the following incident response procedures would he need to perform in order to begin the analysis? (Select TWO).
A. Take hashes
B. Begin the chain of custody paperwork
C. Take screen shots
D. Capture the system image
E. Decompile suspicious files
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
A: Take Hashes. NIST (the National Institute of Standards and Technology) maintains a National Software Reference Library (NSRL). One of the purposes of the NSRL is to collect “known, traceable software applications” through their hash values and store them in a Reference Data Set (RDS). The RDS can then be used by law enforcement, government agencies, and businesses to determine which fi les are important as evidence in criminal investigations.
D: A system image is a snapshot of what exists. Capturing an image of the operating system in its exploited state can be helpful in revisiting the issue after the fact to learn more about it.
Q535. A database administrator would like to start encrypting database exports stored on the SAN, but the storage administrator warns that this may drastically increase the amount of disk space used by the exports. Which of the following explains the reason for the increase in disk space usage?
A. Deduplication is not compatible with encryption
B. The exports are being stored on smaller SAS drives
C. Encrypted files are much larger than unencrypted files
D. The SAN already uses encryption at rest
Answer: C
Explanation:
Encryption adds overhead to the data which results in and increase in file size. This overhead is attached to each file and could include the encryption/decryption key, data recovery files and data decryption field in file header. As a result, requires increased storage space.
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Q536. The security administrator notices a user logging into a corporate Unix server remotely as root.
Which of the following actions should the administrator take?
A. Create a firewall rule to block SSH
B. Delete the root account
C. Disable remote root logins
D. Ensure the root account has a strong password
Answer: C
Explanation:
Q537. Which of the following is a step in deploying a WPA2-Enterprise wireless network?
A. Install a token on the authentication server
B. Install a DHCP server on the authentication server
C. Install an encryption key on the authentication server
D. Install a digital certificate on the authentication server
Answer: D
Explanation:
When setting up a wireless network, you’ll find two very different modes of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) security, which apply to both the WPA and WPA2 versions. The easiest to setup is the Personal mode, technically called the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) mode. It doesn’t require anything beyond the wireless router or access points (APs) and uses a single passphrase or password for all users/devices. The other is the Enterprise mode —which should be used by businesses and organizations—and
is also known as the RADIUS, 802.1X, 802.11i, or EAP mode. It provides better security and key
management, and supports other enterprise-type functionality, such as VLANs and NAP.
However, it requires an external authentication server, called a Remote Authentication Dial In User
Service (RADIUS) server to handle the 802.1X authentication of users.
To help you better understand the process of setting up WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and 802.1X,
here’s the basic overall steps:
Choose, install, and configure a RADIUS server, or use a hosted service.
Create a certificate authority (CA), so you can issue and install a digital certificate onto the
RADIUS server, which may be done as a part of the RADIUS server installation and configuration.
Alternatively, you could purchase a digital certificate from a public CA, such as GoDaddy or
Verisign, so you don’t have to install the server certificate on all the clients. If using EAP-TLS,
you’d also create digital certificates for each end-user.
On the server, populate the RADIUS client database with the IP address and shared secret for
each AP.
On the server, populate user data with usernames and passwords for each end-user.
On each AP, configure the security for WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and input the RADIUS server IP
address and the shared secret you created for that particular AP.
On each Wi-Fi computer and device, configure the security for WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and set the
802.1X authentication settings.
Q538. Jane, the security administrator, sets up a new AP but realizes too many outsiders are able to connect to that AP and gain unauthorized access. Which of the following would be the BEST way to mitigate this issue and still provide coverage where needed? (Select TWO).
A. Disable the wired ports
B. Use channels 1, 4 and 7 only
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Disable SSID broadcast
E. Switch from 802.11a to 802.11b
Answer: C,D
Explanation: Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it’s a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn’t for public use. A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.
Q539. Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Flood Guard Protection
C. Web Application Firewall
D. URL Content Filter
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a form of malicious code-injection attack on a web server in which an attacker injects code into the content sent to website visitors. XSS can be mitigated by implementing patch management on the web server, using firewalls, and auditing for suspicious activity.
Q540. Jane has recently implemented a new network design at her organization and wishes to passively identify security issues with the new network. Which of the following should Jane perform?
A. Vulnerability assessment
B. Black box testing
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Vulnerability scanning has minimal impact on network resources due to the passive nature of the scanning. A vulnerability scan is the process of scanning the network and/or I.T. infrastructure for threats and vulnerabilities. The threats and vulnerabilities are then evaluated in a risk assessment and the necessary actions taken to resolve and vulnerabilities. A vulnerability scan scans for known weaknesses such as missing patches or security updates.
A vulnerability scan is the automated process of proactively identifying security vulnerabilities of computing systems in a network in order to determine if and where a system can be exploited and/or threatened. While public servers are important for communication and data transfer over the Internet, they open the door to potential security breaches by threat agents, such as malicious hackers. Vulnerability scanning employs software that seeks out security flaws based on a database of known flaws, testing systems for the occurrence of these flaws and generating a report of the findings that an individual or an enterprise can use to tighten the network's security.