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2021 Feb cisco 400-101:
Q511. Refer to the exhibit.
This is the configuration of the ASBR of area 110.Which option explains why the remote ABR should not translate the type 7 LSA for the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 into a type 5 LSA?
A. The remote ABR translates all type 7 LSA into type 5 LSA, regardless of any option configured in the ASBR.
B. The ASBR sets the forwarding address to 0.0.0.0 which instructs the ABR not to translate the LSA into a type 5 LSA.
C. The ASBR originates a type 7 LSA with age equal to MAXAGE 3600.
D. The ABR clears the P bit in the header of the type 7 LSA for 192.168.0.0/16.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When external routing information is imported into an NSSA, LSA Type 7 is generated by the ASBR and it is flooded within that area only. To further distribute the external information, type 7 LSA is translated into type 5 LSA at the NSSA border. The P-bit in LSA Type 7 field indicates whether the type 7 LSA should be translated. This P-bit is automatically set by the NSSA ABR (also the Forwarding Address (FA) is copied from Type 7 LSA). The P-bit is not set only when the NSSA ASBR and NSSA ABR are the same router for the area. If bit P = 0, then the NSSA ABR must not translate this LSA into Type 5.
The nssa-only keyword instructs the device to instigate Type-7 LSA with cleared P-bit, thereby, preventing LSA translation to Type 5 on NSSA ABR device.
Note. If a router is attached to another AS and is also an NSSA ABR, it may originate a both a type-5 and a type-7 LSA for the same network. The type-5 LSA will be flooded to the backbone and the type-7 will be flooded into the NSSA. If this is the case, the P-bit must be reset (P=0) in the type-7 LSA so the type-7 LSA isn’t again translated into a type-5 LSA by another NSSA ABR.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/15-e/iro-15-e-book/iro-ospfv3-nssa-cfg.html
Q512. Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field:
Reference: http://www.openwall.com/presentations/IPv6/img24.html
Q513. Assume that the following MAC addresses are used for the bridge ID MAC address by four different switches in a network. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge?
A. SwitchA uses MAC 1000.AA-AA-AA-AA-AA-AA.
B. SwitchB uses MAC 2000.BB-BB-BB-BB-BB-BB.
C. SwitchC uses MAC 3000.CC-CC-CC-CC-CC-CC.
D. SwitchD uses MAC 4000.DD-DD-DD-DD-DD-DD.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The switch with the highest switch priority (the lowest numerical priority value) is elected as the root switch. If all switches are configured with the default priority (32768), the switch with the lowest MAC address in the VLAN becomes the root switch.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_53_se/configuration/guide/2960scg/swstp.html
Q514. On a network using RIPng, the prefix field of a routing table entry has a value of 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0. What does this value signify?
A. The next hop address is unknown.
B. The next hop address is a site-local address.
C. The neighboring router has IPv6 ND disabled.
D. The next hop address must be the originator of the route advertisement.
E. The associated route follows a default route out of the network.
Answer: E
Q515. Which statement about SSHv2 is true?
A. Routers acting as SSH clients can operate without RSA keys.
B. SSHv2 supports port forwarding and compression.
C. The RSA key pair size must be at least 512.
D. You must configure a default gateway before you enable SSHv2.
Answer: A
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Q516. Refer to the exhibit.
Video Source S is sending interactive video traffic to Video Receiver R. Router R1 has multiple routing table entries for destination R. Which load-balancing mechanism on R1 can cause out-of-order video traffic to be received by destination R?
A. per-flow load balancing on R1 for destination R
B. per-source-destination pair load balancing on R1 for destination R
C. CEF load balancing on R1 for destination R
D. per-packet load balancing on R1 for destination R
Answer: D
Explanation:
Per-packet load balancing guarantees equal load across all links, however potentially the packets may arrive out-of-order at the destination as differential delay may exist within the network.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/hw/modules/ps2033/prod_technical_reference09186 a00800afeb7.html
Q517. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement describes the effect on the network if FastEthernet0/1 goes down temporarily?
A. FastEthernet0/2 forwards traffic only until FastEthernet0/1 comes back up.
B. FastEthernet0/2 stops forwarding traffic until FastEthernet0/1 comes back up.
C. FastEthernet0/2 forwards traffic indefinitely.
D. FastEthernet0/1 goes into standby.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Use the switchport backup interface interface configuration command on a Layer 2 interface to configure Flex Links, a pair of interfaces that provide backup to each other. Use the no form of this command to remove the Flex Links configuration. With Flex Links configured, one link acts as the primary interface and forwards traffic, while the other interface is in standby mode, ready to begin forwarding traffic if the primary link shuts down. The interface being configured is referred to as the active link; the specified interface is identified as the backup link. The feature provides an alternative to the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), allowing users to turn off STP and still retain basic link redundancy.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst2960/software/release/12-2_53_se/command/reference/2960ComRef/cli3.html#wp3269214
Q518. Which option is a core event publisher for EEM?
A. Timer
B. Policy Director
C. Applet
D. Script
Answer: A
Explanation:
EEM is a flexible, policy-driven framework that supports in-box monitoring of different components of the system with the help of software agents known as event detectors. The figure below shows the relationship between the EEM server, core event publishers (event detectors), and the event subscribers (policies). Basically, event publishers screen events and publish them when there is a match on an event specification that is provided by the event subscriber. Event detectors notify the EEM server when an event of interest occurs. The EEM policies that are configured using the Cisco command-line interface (CLI) then implement recovery on the basis of the current state of the system and the actions specified in the policy for the given event. EEM offers the ability to monitor events and take informational or corrective action when the monitored events occur or when a threshold is reached. An EEM policy is an entity that defines an event and the actions to be taken when that event occurs. There are two types of EEM policies: an applet or a script. An applet is a simple form of policy that is defined within the CLI configuration. A script is a form of policy that is written in Tool Command Language (Tcl).
Figure 1. Embedded Event Manager Core Event Detectors
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/configuration/15-mt/eem-15-mt-book/eem-overview.html
Q519. Which statement about the EIGRP RTO is true?
A. It is six times the SRTT.
B. It is the time that it normally takes for an update to be received by a peer.
C. It is the time that it normally takes to receive a reply to a query.
D. It is the average time that it takes for a reliable packet to be acknowledged.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The RTO is typically six times the SRTT, the value may vary from a minimum of 200 microseconds (ms) to a maximum of 5 seconds (s).
Reference: EIGRP for IP: Basic Operation and Configuration, Alvaro Retana, Russ White, Don Slice - 2000
Q520. Which two statements about Inverse ARP are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses the same operation code as ARP.
B. It uses the same packet format as ARP.
C. It uses ARP stuffing.
D. It supports static mapping.
E. It translates Layer 2 addresses to Layer 3 addresses.
F. It translates Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Inverse Address Resolution Protocol (Inverse ARP or InARP) is used to obtain Network Layer addresses (for example, IP addresses) of other nodes from Data Link Layer (Layer 2) addresses. It is primarily used in Frame Relay (DLCI) and ATM networks, in which Layer 2 addresses of virtual circuits are sometimes obtained from Layer 2 signaling, and the corresponding Layer 3 addresses must be available before those virtual circuits can be used.
Since ARP translates Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 addresses, InARP may be described as its inverse. In addition, InARP is implemented as a protocol extension to ARP: it uses the same packet format as ARP, but different operation codes.
Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Address_Resolution_Protocol