★ Pass on Your First TRY ★ 100% Money Back Guarantee ★ Realistic Practice Exam Questions
Free Instant Download NEW 400-101 Exam Dumps (PDF & VCE):
Available on:
https://www.certleader.com/400-101-dumps.html
It is impossible to pass Cisco 400-101 exam without any help in the short term. Come to Testking soon and find the most advanced, correct and guaranteed Cisco 400-101 practice questions. You will get a surprising result by our Avant-garde CCIE Routing and Switching (v5.0) practice guides.
2021 Nov ccie dumps 400-101:
Q341. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two are causes of output queue drops on FastEthernet0/0? (Choose two.)
A. an oversubscribed input service policy on FastEthernet0/0
B. a duplex mismatch on FastEthernet0/0
C. a bad cable connected to FastEthernet0/0
D. an oversubscribed output service policy on FastEthernet0/0
E. The router trying to send more than 100 Mb/s out of FastEthernet0/0
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Output drops are caused by a congested interface. For example, the traffic rate on the outgoing interface cannot accept all packets that should be sent out, or a service policy is applied that is oversubscribed. The ultimate solution to resolve the problem is to increase the line speed. However, there are ways to prevent, decrease, or control output drops when you do not want to increase the line speed. You can prevent output drops only if output drops are a consequence of short bursts of data. If output drops are caused by a constant high-rate flow, you cannot prevent the drops. However, you can control them.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/10000-series-routers/6343-queue-drops.html
Q342. Which three statements are functions that are performed by IKE phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. It builds a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 1 parameters.
B. It establishes IPsec security associations.
C. It authenticates the identities of the IPsec peers.
D. It protects the IKE exchange by negotiating a matching IKE SA policy.
E. It protects the identities of IPsec peers.
F. It negotiates IPsec SA parameters.
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
The basic purpose of IKE phase 1 is to authenticate the IPSec peers and to set up a secure channel between the peers to enable IKE exchanges. IKE phase 1 performs the following functions:
. Authenticates and protects the identities of the IPSec peers
. Negotiates a matching IKE SA policy between peers to protect the IKE exchange
. Performs an authenticated Diffie-Hellman exchange with the end result of having matching shared secret keys
. Sets up a secure tunnel to negotiate IKE phase 2 parameters
Reference: http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=25474&seqNum=7
Q343. Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. This configuration is incorrect because the dialer interface number must be the same as the dialer pool number.
B. This configuration is missing an IP address on the dialer interface.
C. This configuration is incorrect because the MTU must match the ppp-max-payload that is defined.
D. This configuration represents a complete PPPoE client configuration on an Ethernet connection.
Answer: D
Q344. Which two statements about the passive-interface command are true? (Choose two.)
A. A RIP router listens to multicast updates from its neighbor but stops sending multicast updates on the passive interface.
B. In OSPF, configuring passive-interface at the interface level suppresses hello packets for the interface and all sub interfaces.
C. An EIGRP router can form neighbor relationship on the passive interface, but incoming and outgoing multicast updates are disabled on the interface.
D. A RIP router disables all incoming and outgoing multicast updates in the passive interface.
E. In EIGRP, the passive interface stops sending hello packets.
F. In OSPF, the passive interface can receive incoming routing updates and update the device routing table.
Answer: A,E
Q345. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about this configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. Spoke devices will be dynamically added to the NHRP mappings.
B. The next-hop server address must be configured to 172.168.1.1 on all spokes.
C. The next-hop server address must be configured to 192.168.1.1 on all spokes.
D. R1 will create a static mapping for each spoke.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
NHRP is a client/server model protocol which is defined by RFC2332. The hub is considered to be the Next Hop Server (NHS) and the spokes are considered to be the Next Hop Client (NHC). The hub must be configured as the next-hop server. NHRP provides a mapping between the inside and outside address of a tunnel endpoint. These mappings can be static or dynamic. In a dynamic scenario, a next-hop server (NHS) is used to maintain a list of possible tunnel endpoints. Each endpoint using the NHS registers its own public and private mapping with the NHS. The local mapping of the NHS must always be static. It is important to note that the branch points to the inside or protected address of the NHS server. This scenario is an example of dynamic mappings.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/DMVPDG/DMV PN_2_Phase2.html
Updated 400-101 cisco ccie written:
Q346. Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames.
The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
Q347. What are two benefits of NVI? (Choose two.)
A. It provides scalability by maintaining a NAT table on every interface.
B. It can dynamically create a static route to the NAT pool for translation.
C. It supports the use of route maps for policy-based NAT.
D. It supports the use of a single interface for translations.
E. It injects a route into the existing routing protocol that directs translation to the NAT pool.
Answer: A,B
Q348. Refer to the exhibit.
The device with this configuration is unable to reach network 172.31.31.0/24. The next hop router has been verified to have full connectivity to the network. Which two actions can you take to establish connectivity to the network? (Choose two.)
A. Create a static route to 172.16.199.0 using the address of the next hop router.
B. Create a default route to the link address of the next hop router.
C. Create a static route to the loopback address of the next hop router.
D. Create a default route to 172.16.199.9.
E. Modify the existing static route so that the next hop is 0.0.0.0.
F. Replace the ip default-network command with the ip default-gateway command.
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Unlike the ip default-gateway command, you can use ip default-network when ip routing is enabled on the Cisco router. When you configure ip default-network the router considers routes to that network for installation as the gateway of last resort on the router.
For every network configured with ip default-network, if a router has a route to that network, that route is flagged as a candidate default route. However, in this case if the router does not a route to the drfault network of 172.16.199.9, then you would need to ensure that this route exisits by creating a static route to 172.16.199.0 using the address of the next hop router, or simply create a default route using the address of the next hop router.
Q349. What are the two requirements for BGP to install a classful network into the BGP routing table? (Choose two)
A. The AS contains the entire classfull network.
B. A classful network statement with a lower administrative distance is in the routing table.
C. Auto-summary is enabled.
D. A classful network statement with a classful mask is in the routing table.
E. Synchronization is enabled.
F. Synchronization is disabled.
Answer: C,D
Q350. Which two options are causes of out-of-order packets? (Choose two.)
A. a routing loop
B. a router in the packet flow path that is intermittently dropping packets
C. high latency
D. packets in a flow traversing multiple paths through the network
E. some packets in a flow being process-switched and others being interrupt-switched on a transit router
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
In traditional packet forwarding systems, using different paths have varying latencies that cause out of order packets, eventually resulting in far lower performance for the network application. Also, if some packets are process switched quickly by the routing engine of the router while others are interrupt switched (which takes more time) then it could result in out of order packets. The other options would cause packet drops or latency, but not out of order packets.